Practice Free 250-583 Exam Online Questions
Why is applying least-privilege RBAC critical in multi-team security operations?
- A . Limits blast radius of misconfiguration or credential compromise
- B . Reduces SIEM license consumption
- C . Enables batch editing of global policies
- D . Ensures faster log downloads for analysts
A
Explanation:
Scoped privileges contain risk.
In Symantec ZTNA, which feature combination best mitigates lateral movement while ensuring data compliance for unmanaged (BYOD) endpoints?
- A . Agent-less access + Cloud DLP inspection
- B . Agent-based posture checks + DNS tunneling
- C . Site segmentation + Threat Intelligence Services (TIS) feeds
- D . Network Security Boundary + zero-log retention
A, C
Explanation:
Agent-less + DLP controls data exfiltration on BYOD, and segmentation with TIS reduces lateral threat spread.
If you exceed the recommended 60-application limit per Site, what operational risk increases?
- A . Connector resource exhaustion leading to session drops
- B . Immediate revocation of Symantec support
- C . IDP token bloat that breaks SAML assertions
- D . Automatic migration to agent-only mode
A
Explanation:
Too many apps strain the Connector and may drop sessions.
A Zero-Trust rollout mandates step-wise onboarding to avoid productivity loss.
Which Portal feature supports this?
- A . Plan -> Onboard wizard that stages Sites, Apps, Policies sequentially
- B . Bulk CSV importer for all Policy objects
- C . Global kill-switch that blocks traffic instantly
- D . Log replay simulator for historical policies
A
Explanation:
The wizard guides phased deployment.
When might you choose to leverage on-prem SIEM instead of cloud SIEM for ZTNA logs?
- A . Strict data-residency laws preventing log egress
- B . Desire to reduce CapEx
- C . Faster deployment time
- D . Built-in visualization dashboards
A
Explanation:
Residency constraints keep logs local; cost and dashboards are secondary.
Which Connector operating mode provides the best balance between transparency and control for migrations?
- A . Reverse proxy (transparent) mode
- B . Discovery-only mode
- C . Policy-enforced inline proxy mode
- D . Tap (SPAN) mode behind load balancer
B
Explanation:
Discovery mode observes traffic without enforcement, easing migrations.
A Cloud DLP fingerprint is updated.
What immediate ZTNA action is required?
- A . No action―DLP updates propagate automatically to connected Sites
- B . Re-publish all access policies
- C . Restart all Connectors to reload fingerprints
- D . Clear policy staging cache
A
Explanation:
Cloud service automatically syncs fingerprints.
Why should policy object names follow a strict naming convention (e.g., BU-APP-SENS)?
- A . Facilitates search, versioning, and audit readability
- B . Triggers automatic DLP classification
- C . Determines Connector load distribution
- D . Encrypts the object metadata at rest
A
Explanation:
Consistency aids operations; naming doesn’t alter enforcement mechanics.
When first entering the ZTNA Admin Portal, which two sections must a Tenant Admin configure before any policy can be enforced?
- A . Authentication (IDP) settings
- B . Logging & Reporting destinations
- C . Network Security Boundary (Sites & Connectors)
- D . Threat Intelligence Services feed overrides
A, C
Explanation:
Without an IDP and at least one Site/Connector, no user or traffic context exists for enforcement.
You must ensure that log shipping continues if the primary SIEM endpoint fails.
What is the correct setup?
- A . Configure multiple syslog destinations with priority order
- B . Enable log truncation on failure
- C . Store logs only on the Connector until manual export
- D . Switch to UDP transport to permit lossy delivery
A
Explanation:
Multiple destinations provide automatic failover.