Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
Question #31
A company-owned mobile device is displaying a high number of ads, receiving data-usage limit notifications, and experiencing slow response. After checking the device, a technician notices the device has been jailbroken.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Run an antivirus and enable encryption.
- B . Restore the defaults and reimage the corporate OS.
- C . Back up the files and do a system restore.
- D . Undo the jailbreak and enable an antivirus.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Jailbreaking a device exposes it to various security risks, such as malware, data theft, network attacks, and service disruption1234. Running an antivirus and enabling encryption may not be enough to remove the threats and restore the device’s functionality. Undoing the jailbreak may not be possible or effective, depending on the method used. Backing up the files and doing a system restore may preserve the jailbreak and the associated problems. The best option is to erase the device and reinstall the original operating system that is compatible with the corporate policies and standards. This will ensure that the device is clean, secure, and compliant25.
Reference:
1 What is Jailbreaking & Is it safe? – Kaspersky(https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-jailbreaking).
2 Jailbreak Detection: Why is jailbreaking a potential
security risk? – Cybersecurity ASEE(https://cybersecurity.asee.co/blog/what-is-jailbreaking/).
3 Jailbreaking Information for iOS Devices | University IT ( https://uit.stanford.edu/service/mydevices/jailbreak)
4 What does it mean to jailbreak your phone―and is it legal? – Microsoft(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365-life-hacks/privacy-and-safety/what-is-jailbreaking-a-phone).
5 Resetting a corporate laptop back to a personal laptop… Enterprise vs Pro C Windows 10(https://community.spiceworks.com/topic/2196812-resetting-a-corporate-laptop-back-to-a-personal-laptop-enterprise-vs-pro).
B
Explanation:
Jailbreaking a device exposes it to various security risks, such as malware, data theft, network attacks, and service disruption1234. Running an antivirus and enabling encryption may not be enough to remove the threats and restore the device’s functionality. Undoing the jailbreak may not be possible or effective, depending on the method used. Backing up the files and doing a system restore may preserve the jailbreak and the associated problems. The best option is to erase the device and reinstall the original operating system that is compatible with the corporate policies and standards. This will ensure that the device is clean, secure, and compliant25.
Reference:
1 What is Jailbreaking & Is it safe? – Kaspersky(https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-jailbreaking).
2 Jailbreak Detection: Why is jailbreaking a potential
security risk? – Cybersecurity ASEE(https://cybersecurity.asee.co/blog/what-is-jailbreaking/).
3 Jailbreaking Information for iOS Devices | University IT ( https://uit.stanford.edu/service/mydevices/jailbreak)
4 What does it mean to jailbreak your phone―and is it legal? – Microsoft(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365-life-hacks/privacy-and-safety/what-is-jailbreaking-a-phone).
5 Resetting a corporate laptop back to a personal laptop… Enterprise vs Pro C Windows 10(https://community.spiceworks.com/topic/2196812-resetting-a-corporate-laptop-back-to-a-personal-laptop-enterprise-vs-pro).
Question #32
A technician is partitioning a hard disk. The five primary partitions should contain 4TB of free space.
Which of the following partition styles should the technician use to partition the device?
- A . EFS
- B . GPT
- C . MBR
- D . FAT32
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
GPT is the correct answer for this question. GPT stands for GUID Partition Table, and it is a partition style that supports up to 128 primary partitions and up to 18 exabytes of disk size per partition. GPT also uses a unique identifier for each partition and provides better data protection and recovery. GPT is suitable for partitioning a hard disk that has five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each.
EFS, MBR, and FAT32 are not correct answers for this question. EFS stands for Encrypting File System, and it is a feature that allows encrypting files and folders on NTFS volumes. EFS is not a partition
style, but rather a file system attribute. MBR stands for Master Boot Record, and it is an older partition style that supports up to four primary partitions and up to 2TB of disk size per partition. MBR cannot handle five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32, and it is a file system that supports up to 32GB of disk size per partition and up to 4GB of file size. FAT32 is not a partition style, but rather a file system type.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14
CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 105
B
Explanation:
GPT is the correct answer for this question. GPT stands for GUID Partition Table, and it is a partition style that supports up to 128 primary partitions and up to 18 exabytes of disk size per partition. GPT also uses a unique identifier for each partition and provides better data protection and recovery. GPT is suitable for partitioning a hard disk that has five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each.
EFS, MBR, and FAT32 are not correct answers for this question. EFS stands for Encrypting File System, and it is a feature that allows encrypting files and folders on NTFS volumes. EFS is not a partition
style, but rather a file system attribute. MBR stands for Master Boot Record, and it is an older partition style that supports up to four primary partitions and up to 2TB of disk size per partition. MBR cannot handle five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32, and it is a file system that supports up to 32GB of disk size per partition and up to 4GB of file size. FAT32 is not a partition style, but rather a file system type.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14
CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 105
Question #33
A macOS user is installing a new application.
Which of the following system directories is the software MOST likely to install by default?
- A . /etc/services
- B . /Applications
- C . /usr/bin
- D . C:Program Files
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The software is most likely to install by default in the /Applications directory, which is the standard location for macOS applications. This directory can be accessed from the Finder sidebar or by choosing Go > Applications from the menu bar. The /Applications directory contains all the applications that are available to all users on the system1. Some applications might also offer the option to install in the ~/Applications directory, which is a personal applications folder for a single user2. The /etc/services directory is a system configuration file that maps service names to port numbers and protocols3. The /usr/bin directory is a system directory that contains executable binaries for various commands and utilities4. The C:Program Files directory is a Windows directory that does not exist on macOS.
B
Explanation:
The software is most likely to install by default in the /Applications directory, which is the standard location for macOS applications. This directory can be accessed from the Finder sidebar or by choosing Go > Applications from the menu bar. The /Applications directory contains all the applications that are available to all users on the system1. Some applications might also offer the option to install in the ~/Applications directory, which is a personal applications folder for a single user2. The /etc/services directory is a system configuration file that maps service names to port numbers and protocols3. The /usr/bin directory is a system directory that contains executable binaries for various commands and utilities4. The C:Program Files directory is a Windows directory that does not exist on macOS.
Question #34
A technician has verified that a user’s computer has a virus and the antivirus software is out of date.
Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
- A . Quarantine the computer.
- B . Use a previous restore point.
- C . Educate the end user about viruses.
- D . Download the latest virus definitions.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The first step in removing a virus from a computer is to update the antivirus software with the latest virus definitions. Virus definitions are files that contain information about the characteristics and behavior of known viruses and malware. They help the antivirus software to identify and remove the malicious threats from the computer. Without the latest virus definitions, the antivirus software may not be able to detect or remove the virus that infected the user’s computer. Therefore, the technician should download the latest virus definitions from the antivirus vendor’s website or use the update feature in the antivirus program before scanning the computer for viruses.
Reference: How to remove malware or viruses from my Windows 10 PC, section 21 How to Remove a Virus From a Computer in 2023, section 32
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2193
D
Explanation:
The first step in removing a virus from a computer is to update the antivirus software with the latest virus definitions. Virus definitions are files that contain information about the characteristics and behavior of known viruses and malware. They help the antivirus software to identify and remove the malicious threats from the computer. Without the latest virus definitions, the antivirus software may not be able to detect or remove the virus that infected the user’s computer. Therefore, the technician should download the latest virus definitions from the antivirus vendor’s website or use the update feature in the antivirus program before scanning the computer for viruses.
Reference: How to remove malware or viruses from my Windows 10 PC, section 21 How to Remove a Virus From a Computer in 2023, section 32
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2193
Question #35
A technician needs to remotely connect to a Linux desktop to assist a user with troubleshooting. The technician needs to make use of a tool natively designed for Linux.
Which of the following tools will the technician MOST likely use?
- A . VNC
- B . MFA
- C . MSRA
- D . RDP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The tool that the technician will most likely use to remotely connect to a Linux desktop is VNC. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing and is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a graphical desktop environment over a network. VNC is natively designed for Linux and can also support other operating systems, such as Windows and Mac OS. VNC can be used to assist users with troubleshooting by viewing and interacting with their desktops remotely. MFA stands for Multi-Factor Authentication and is a method of verifying identity using two or more factors, such as something you know, something you have or something you are. MFA is not a tool that can be used to remotely connect to a Linux desktop but a technique that can be used to enhance security for systems or services. MSRA stands for Microsoft Remote Assistance and is a feature that allows remote access and control of a Windows desktop environment over a network. MSRA is not natively designed for Linux and may not be compatible or supported by Linux systems. RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol and is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows desktop environment over a network. RDP is not natively designed for Linux and may not be compatible or supported by Linux systems. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.6
A
Explanation:
The tool that the technician will most likely use to remotely connect to a Linux desktop is VNC. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing and is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a graphical desktop environment over a network. VNC is natively designed for Linux and can also support other operating systems, such as Windows and Mac OS. VNC can be used to assist users with troubleshooting by viewing and interacting with their desktops remotely. MFA stands for Multi-Factor Authentication and is a method of verifying identity using two or more factors, such as something you know, something you have or something you are. MFA is not a tool that can be used to remotely connect to a Linux desktop but a technique that can be used to enhance security for systems or services. MSRA stands for Microsoft Remote Assistance and is a feature that allows remote access and control of a Windows desktop environment over a network. MSRA is not natively designed for Linux and may not be compatible or supported by Linux systems. RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol and is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows desktop environment over a network. RDP is not natively designed for Linux and may not be compatible or supported by Linux systems. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.6
Question #36
A workstation does not recognize a printer. However, the previous day. the printer successfully received a job from the workstation.
Which of the following tools should a technician use to see what happened before the failure?
- A . Performance Monitor
- B . Devices and Printers
- C . Task Scheduler
- D . Event Viewer
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When troubleshooting a printer that was previously working but is no longer recognized by a workstation, Event Viewer is the most appropriate tool to check for historical logs and events related to the printer and the system.
Option A: Performance Monitor
Performance Monitor is used for monitoring system performance and resources in real-time and does not provide specific historical event logs related to device failures.
Option B: Devices and Printers
Devices and Printers show the status and properties of connected devices but do not provide a historical log of events or errors.
Option C: Task Scheduler
Task Scheduler manages and monitors scheduled tasks but does not log hardware events or errors.
Option D: Event Viewer
Event Viewer logs system events, including errors, warnings, and information related to hardware and software. It is ideal for checking what happened prior to the printer failure.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1 (Troubleshoot common Windows OS problems), particularly using Event Viewer for diagnosing issues.
D
Explanation:
When troubleshooting a printer that was previously working but is no longer recognized by a workstation, Event Viewer is the most appropriate tool to check for historical logs and events related to the printer and the system.
Option A: Performance Monitor
Performance Monitor is used for monitoring system performance and resources in real-time and does not provide specific historical event logs related to device failures.
Option B: Devices and Printers
Devices and Printers show the status and properties of connected devices but do not provide a historical log of events or errors.
Option C: Task Scheduler
Task Scheduler manages and monitors scheduled tasks but does not log hardware events or errors.
Option D: Event Viewer
Event Viewer logs system events, including errors, warnings, and information related to hardware and software. It is ideal for checking what happened prior to the printer failure.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1 (Troubleshoot common Windows OS problems), particularly using Event Viewer for diagnosing issues.
Question #37
A company recently outsourced its night-shift cleaning service. A technician is concerned about having unsupervised contractors in the building.
Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed? (Select two).
- A . Implementing data-at-rest encryption
- B . Disabling AutoRun
- C . Restricting user permissions
- D . Restricting log-in times
- E . Enabling a screen lock
- F . Disabling local administrator accounts
Correct Answer: DE
DE
Explanation:
The correct answers are D. Restricting log-in times and E. Enabling a screen lock. These are the security measures that can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed by unsupervised contractors in the building.
Restricting log-in times means setting a policy that allows users to log in only during certain hours, such as the regular working hours of the company. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who work at night 1.
Enabling a screen lock means setting a policy that requires users to enter a password or a PIN to unlock their screens after a period of inactivity. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who might try to use the computers when the users are away2.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 19, section 2.3. 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 20, section 2.4.
DE
Explanation:
The correct answers are D. Restricting log-in times and E. Enabling a screen lock. These are the security measures that can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed by unsupervised contractors in the building.
Restricting log-in times means setting a policy that allows users to log in only during certain hours, such as the regular working hours of the company. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who work at night 1.
Enabling a screen lock means setting a policy that requires users to enter a password or a PIN to unlock their screens after a period of inactivity. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who might try to use the computers when the users are away2.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 19, section 2.3. 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 20, section 2.4.
Question #38
A technician is unable to access the internet or named network resources. The technician receives a valid IP address from the DHCP server and can ping the default gateway.
Which of the following should the technician check next to resolve the issue?
- A . Verify the DNS server settings.
- B . Turn off the Windows firewall.
- C . Confirm the subnet mask is correct.
- D . Configure a static IP address.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) Verify the DNS server settings. This is because the DNS server is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, which is necessary for accessing the internet or named network resources. If the DNS server settings are incorrect or the DNS server is down, the technician will not be able to access these resources even if they have a valid IP address and can ping the default gateway 1.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 16, section 1. 10.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) Verify the DNS server settings. This is because the DNS server is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, which is necessary for accessing the internet or named network resources. If the DNS server settings are incorrect or the DNS server is down, the technician will not be able to access these resources even if they have a valid IP address and can ping the default gateway 1.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 16, section 1. 10.
Question #39
A Chief Executive Officer has learned that an exploit has been identified on the web server software, and a patch is not available yet.
Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
- A . Brute force
- B . Zero day
- C . Denial of service
- D . On-path
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A zero-day attack is an attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in a computer application, meaning that the attack occurs on “day zero” of awareness of the vulnerability
✑ Configuring AAA Services. Retrieved from https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-0/security/configuration/guide/sc40crsbook_chapter1.html
B
Explanation:
A zero-day attack is an attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in a computer application, meaning that the attack occurs on “day zero” of awareness of the vulnerability
✑ Configuring AAA Services. Retrieved from https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-0/security/configuration/guide/sc40crsbook_chapter1.html
Question #40
A remote user contacts the help desk about an email that appears to be distorted. The technician is unsure what the user means and needs to view the email to assist with troubleshooting.
Which of the following should the technician use to assist the user?
- A . VNC
- B . SSH
- C . VPN
- D . RMM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The best tool to use to assist the user with viewing the email is RMM, which stands for remote monitoring and management. This is a software that allows the technician to remotely access, monitor, and manage the user’s computer and applications. The technician can use RMM to view the user’s screen, control the mouse and keyboard, and troubleshoot the email issue. The other tools are not suitable for this task. VNC is a software that allows remote desktop sharing, but it requires the user to install and configure it on their computer, which may not be feasible or convenient. SSH is a protocol that allows secure remote access to a command-line interface, but it is not useful for viewing graphical applications such as email. VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, but it does not provide remote access or control of the user’s computer.
D
Explanation:
The best tool to use to assist the user with viewing the email is RMM, which stands for remote monitoring and management. This is a software that allows the technician to remotely access, monitor, and manage the user’s computer and applications. The technician can use RMM to view the user’s screen, control the mouse and keyboard, and troubleshoot the email issue. The other tools are not suitable for this task. VNC is a software that allows remote desktop sharing, but it requires the user to install and configure it on their computer, which may not be feasible or convenient. SSH is a protocol that allows secure remote access to a command-line interface, but it is not useful for viewing graphical applications such as email. VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, but it does not provide remote access or control of the user’s computer.