Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
A systems administrator finds that a Windows client machine with an address of 169.254.124.24 is unable to access network resources.
Which of the following should the administrator do to establish connectivity?
- A . Reinstall the NIC device driver.
- B . Assign a static IP.
- C . Reconfigure DNS settings.
- D . Disable the Windows firewall.
B
Explanation:
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 220-1102, Objective 2.1 (IP Configuration and Troubleshooting).
A network administrator is setting up the security for a SOHO wireless network.
Which of the following options should the administrator enable to secure the network?
- A . NAT
- B . WPA3
- C . 802.1X
- D . Static IP
B
Explanation:
To secure a SOHO wireless network, enabling WPA3 is the recommended option. WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the latest security certification program developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to secure wireless computer networks. It provides cutting-edge security protocols and cryptographic methods to enhance and replace its predecessors, WPA2 and WPA, offering improved protection against brute-force attacks and ensuring better privacy on public networks.
A technician discovers user input has been captured by a malicious actor.
Which of the following malware types is MOST likely being used?
- A . Cryptominers
- B . Rootkit
- C . Spear phishing
- D . Keylogger
D
Explanation:
A keylogger is a type of malware that captures user input, such as keystrokes, mouse clicks, and clipboard data, and sends it to a malicious actor. Keyloggers can be used to steal passwords, credit card numbers, personal information, and other sensitive data.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 Exam Objectives, Section 5.1
Which of the following should be used to control security settings on an Android phone in a domain environment?
- A . MDM
- B . MFA
- C . ACL
- D . SMS
A
Explanation:
The best answer to control security settings on an Android phone in a domain environment is to use “Mobile Device Management (MDM)”. MDM is a type of software that is used to manage and secure mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets. MDM can be used to enforce security policies, configure settings, and remotely wipe data from devices. In a domain environment, MDM can be used to manage Android phones and enforce security policies such as password requirements, encryption, and
remote wipe capabilities12
The findings from a security audit indicate the risk of data loss from lost or stolen laptops is high. The company wants to reduce this risk with minimal impact to users who want to use their laptops when not on the network.
Which of the following would BEST reduce this risk for Windows laptop users?
- A . Requiring strong passwords
- B . Disabling cached credentials
- C . Requiring MFA to sign on
- D . Enabling BitLocker on all hard drives
D
Explanation:
BitLocker is a disk encryption tool that can be used to encrypt the hard drive of a Windows laptop. This will protect the data stored on the drive in the event that the laptop is lost or stolen, and will help to reduce the risk of data loss. Additionally, BitLocker can be configured to require a PIN or other authentication in order to unlock the drive, providing an additional layer of security.
Security software was accidentally uninstalled from all servers in the environment. After requesting the same version of the software be reinstalled, the security analyst learns that a change request will need to be filled out.
Which of the following is the BEST reason to follow the change management process in this scenario?
- A . Owners can be notified a change is being made and can monitor it for performance impact. Most Voted
- B . A risk assessment can be performed to determine if the software is needed.
- C . End users can be aware of the scope of the change.
- D . A rollback plan can be implemented in case the software breaks an application.
A
Explanation:
change management process can help ensure that owners are notified of changes being made and can monitor them for performance impact (A). This can help prevent unexpected issues from arising.
A technician downloaded software from the Internet that required the technician to scroll through a text box and at the end of the text box, click a button labeled Accept.
Which of the following agreements IS MOST likely in use?
- A . DRM
- B . NDA
- C . EULA
- D . MOU
C
Explanation:
The most likely agreement in use here is a EULA (End User License Agreement). This is a legally binding agreement between the user and the software developer, outlining the terms and conditions that the user must agree to in order to use the software. It is important that the user understands and agrees to the EULA before they can proceed with downloading and installing the software. As stated in the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, users should be aware of the EULA before downloading any software.
Which of the following ensures data is unrecoverable on a lost or stolen mobile device?
- A . Device encryption
- B . Remote wipe
- C . Data backup
- D . Fingerprint reader
B
Explanation:
To ensure data is unrecoverable on a lost or stolen mobile device, the best solution is:
Remote wipe: This feature allows the device owner or IT administrator to remotely erase all data on the device, ensuring that it cannot be recovered by unauthorized users.
Device encryption: While important for protecting data, encryption alone does not remove data from the device.
Data backup: Ensures data is saved elsewhere but does not make it unrecoverable on the lost or stolen device.
Fingerprint reader: Provides security for accessing the device but does not affect data recovery if the
device is compromised.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.7: Explain common methods for securing mobile and embedded devices.
Mobile device security practices documentation.
A technician is setting up backup and recovery solutions that must restore quickly. Storage space is not a factor.
Which of the following backup methods should the technician implement?
- A . Differential
- B . Synthetic
- C . Full
- D . Incremental
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Full Backup.
A Full Backup creates a complete copy of all selected data every time it runs. This method ensures the fastest possible recovery time because all the necessary data is contained in a single backup file. Since storage space is not a concern, full backups are ideal because they avoid the need to restore multiple incremental or differential backups.
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is minimized, making full backups the best choice for quick restoration.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A user reports that an air-gapped computer may have been infected with a virus after the user transferred files from a USB drive. The technician runs a computer scan with Windows Defender but does not find an infection.
Which of the following actions should the technician take next? (Select two).
- A . Examine the event logs.
- B . Connect to the network.
- C . Document the findings.
- D . Update the definitions.
- E . Reimage the computer.
- F . Enable the firewall.
AD
Explanation:
When dealing with a suspected virus infection on an air-gapped computer, after an initial scan with Windows Defender shows no infection, the next steps should include examining the event logs to look for suspicious activity and updating the virus definitions for a more thorough scan. Event logs can provide insights into system changes and potential malicious activities, while updated definitions ensure the antivirus software can detect the latest threats. Connecting to the network or enabling the firewall might not be appropriate due to the risk of spreading the infection, and re-imaging the computer or documenting the findings would be subsequent steps if the initial actions don’t resolve the issue.
Reference: Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2 Student Guide.