Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
An employee calls the help desk regarding an issue with a laptop PC. After a Windows update, the user can no longer use certain locally attached devices, and a reboot has not fixed the issue.
Which of the following should the technician perform to fix the issue?
- A . Disable the Windows Update service.
- B . Check for updates.
- C . Restore hidden updates.
- D . Rollback updates.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The technician should perform a rollback of the Windows update that caused the issue with the locally attached devices. A rollback is a process of uninstalling an update and restoring the previous version of the system. This can help to fix any compatibility or performance issues caused by the update1. To rollback an update, the technician can use the Settings app, the Control Panel, or the System Restore feature. The technician should also check for any device driver updates that might be needed after rolling back the update. Disabling the Windows Update service is not a good practice, as it can prevent the system from receiving important security and feature updates. Checking for updates might not fix the issue, as the update that caused the issue might still be installed. Restoring hidden updates is not relevant, as it only applies to updates that have been hidden by the user to prevent them from being installed2.
References:
1: https://www.windowscentral.com/how-uninstall-and-reinstall-updates-windows-10
2: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/show-or-hide-updates-in-windows-10-9c9f0a4f-9a6e-4c8e-8b44-afbc6b33f3cf
D
Explanation:
The technician should perform a rollback of the Windows update that caused the issue with the locally attached devices. A rollback is a process of uninstalling an update and restoring the previous version of the system. This can help to fix any compatibility or performance issues caused by the update1. To rollback an update, the technician can use the Settings app, the Control Panel, or the System Restore feature. The technician should also check for any device driver updates that might be needed after rolling back the update. Disabling the Windows Update service is not a good practice, as it can prevent the system from receiving important security and feature updates. Checking for updates might not fix the issue, as the update that caused the issue might still be installed. Restoring hidden updates is not relevant, as it only applies to updates that have been hidden by the user to prevent them from being installed2.
References:
1: https://www.windowscentral.com/how-uninstall-and-reinstall-updates-windows-10
2: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/show-or-hide-updates-in-windows-10-9c9f0a4f-9a6e-4c8e-8b44-afbc6b33f3cf
Question #12
A developer installed a new software package that has stopped all file server access.
Which of the following change management practices should have been followed?
- A . End-user acceptance
- B . Staff delegation
- C . Appropriate scoping
- D . Sandbox testing
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Detailed
The issue could have been avoided if the developer had used Sandbox testing (Option D), which allows new software to be tested in a controlled environment before implementation. This process ensures that the software does not negatively impact system functionality, like stopping access to critical resources such as file servers.
End-user acceptance (Option A) ensures that users approve the software, but it wouldn’t prevent the issue.
Staff delegation (Option B) relates to who is responsible but doesn’t address testing.
Appropriate scoping (Option C) helps in defining the extent of changes but does not replace testing.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 4.2 – Explain basic change management best practices, including testing in a sandbox environment.
D
Explanation:
Detailed
The issue could have been avoided if the developer had used Sandbox testing (Option D), which allows new software to be tested in a controlled environment before implementation. This process ensures that the software does not negatively impact system functionality, like stopping access to critical resources such as file servers.
End-user acceptance (Option A) ensures that users approve the software, but it wouldn’t prevent the issue.
Staff delegation (Option B) relates to who is responsible but doesn’t address testing.
Appropriate scoping (Option C) helps in defining the extent of changes but does not replace testing.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 4.2 – Explain basic change management best practices, including testing in a sandbox environment.
Question #13
A technician requires graphical remote access to various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN. The security administrator asks the technician to utilize a single software solution that does not require an external internet connection.
Which of the following remote access tools is the technician most likely to install?
- A . VNC
- B . RMM
- C . RDP
- D . SSH
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. VNC does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. VNC uses a client-server model, where the server runs on the remote desktop and the client connects to it from another device. VNC can transmit the keyboard and mouse events from the client to the server, and the screen updates from the server to the client, enabling the technician to interact with the remote desktop as if it were local12.
VNC is a better option than the other choices because:
RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) (B) is not a single software solution, but a category of software solutions that enable IT professionals to remotely monitor, manage, and troubleshoot multiple devices and networks. RMM software may include remote access tools, but also other features such as patch management, backup and recovery, security, reporting, and automation. RMM software may require an external internet connection, as it often relies on cloud-based services or web-based consoles34.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) © is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control Windows desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. However, RDP is not compatible with Linux or macOS desktops, unless they have third-party software installed that can emulate or translate the RDP protocol. RDP also has some security and performance issues, such as encryption vulnerabilities, bandwidth consumption, and latency problems56.
SSH (Secure Shell) (D) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a command-line interface. SSH does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. SSH uses encryption and authentication to secure the communication between the client and the
server. However, SSH does not provide a graphical user interface, which may limit the functionality and usability of the remote desktop7 .
Reference: 1: What is VNC? – Definition from Techopedia1 2: How VNC Works – RealVNC2 3: What is Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)? – Definition from Techopedia3 4: What is RMM Software? – NinjaRMM4 5: What is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? – Definition from Techopedia5 6: Remote Desktop Protocol: What it is and how to secure it – CSO Online6 7: What is Secure Shell (SSH)? – Definition from Techopedia7 : How to Use SSH to Access a Remote Server in Linux or Windows – Hostinger Tutorials
A
Explanation:
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. VNC does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. VNC uses a client-server model, where the server runs on the remote desktop and the client connects to it from another device. VNC can transmit the keyboard and mouse events from the client to the server, and the screen updates from the server to the client, enabling the technician to interact with the remote desktop as if it were local12.
VNC is a better option than the other choices because:
RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) (B) is not a single software solution, but a category of software solutions that enable IT professionals to remotely monitor, manage, and troubleshoot multiple devices and networks. RMM software may include remote access tools, but also other features such as patch management, backup and recovery, security, reporting, and automation. RMM software may require an external internet connection, as it often relies on cloud-based services or web-based consoles34.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) © is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control Windows desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. However, RDP is not compatible with Linux or macOS desktops, unless they have third-party software installed that can emulate or translate the RDP protocol. RDP also has some security and performance issues, such as encryption vulnerabilities, bandwidth consumption, and latency problems56.
SSH (Secure Shell) (D) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a command-line interface. SSH does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. SSH uses encryption and authentication to secure the communication between the client and the
server. However, SSH does not provide a graphical user interface, which may limit the functionality and usability of the remote desktop7 .
Reference: 1: What is VNC? – Definition from Techopedia1 2: How VNC Works – RealVNC2 3: What is Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM)? – Definition from Techopedia3 4: What is RMM Software? – NinjaRMM4 5: What is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? – Definition from Techopedia5 6: Remote Desktop Protocol: What it is and how to secure it – CSO Online6 7: What is Secure Shell (SSH)? – Definition from Techopedia7 : How to Use SSH to Access a Remote Server in Linux or Windows – Hostinger Tutorials
Question #14
An administrator needs to select a method to dispose of SSDs containing sensitive data.
Which of the following are the most appropriate methods? (Select two).
- A . Degauss
- B . Delete
- C . Incinerate
- D . Recycle
- E . Format
- F . Shred
Correct Answer: CF
CF
Explanation:
Disposing of SSDs (Solid State Drives) containing sensitive data requires methods that ensure the data cannot be recovered. SSDs store data on flash memory, which makes traditional data destruction methods like degaussing ineffective, as degaussing relies on demagnetizing the magnetic media found in traditional hard drives.
Incineration: This method ensures the complete destruction of the SSD by burning it at high temperatures. This process is effective as it physically destroys the flash memory chips, making data recovery impossible.
Shredding: Shredding involves physically breaking the SSD into small pieces. Specialized shredding machines designed for electronic media can cut the SSD into pieces small enough to render the data unrecoverable.
Other listed options such as Degaussing (A) is ineffective on SSDs because they don’t use magnetic storage. Simple Deletion (B) and Formatting (E) are not secure methods for data destruction as the data can potentially be recovered using specialized software. Recycling (D) is environmentally friendly but does not guarantee data destruction if the drive is not physically destroyed first.
CF
Explanation:
Disposing of SSDs (Solid State Drives) containing sensitive data requires methods that ensure the data cannot be recovered. SSDs store data on flash memory, which makes traditional data destruction methods like degaussing ineffective, as degaussing relies on demagnetizing the magnetic media found in traditional hard drives.
Incineration: This method ensures the complete destruction of the SSD by burning it at high temperatures. This process is effective as it physically destroys the flash memory chips, making data recovery impossible.
Shredding: Shredding involves physically breaking the SSD into small pieces. Specialized shredding machines designed for electronic media can cut the SSD into pieces small enough to render the data unrecoverable.
Other listed options such as Degaussing (A) is ineffective on SSDs because they don’t use magnetic storage. Simple Deletion (B) and Formatting (E) are not secure methods for data destruction as the data can potentially be recovered using specialized software. Recycling (D) is environmentally friendly but does not guarantee data destruction if the drive is not physically destroyed first.
Question #15
Which of the following is used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation?
- A . Scope change
- B . End-user acceptance
- C . Risk analysis
- D . Rollback plan
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Risk analysis is used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation. Risk analysis is a process of identifying, assessing and prioritizing potential risks that may affect a project or an activity. Risk analysis can help determine the likelihood and impact of various issues that may arise during a change implementation, such as technical errors, compatibility problems, security breaches, performance degradation or user dissatisfaction. Risk analysis can also help plan and prepare for mitigating or avoiding these issues. Scope change is a modification of the original goals, requirements or deliverables of a project or an activity. Scope change is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to reflect changes in expectations or needs of the stakeholders. End-user acceptance is a measure of how well the users are satisfied with and adopt a new system or service. End-user acceptance is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to evaluate the success and effectiveness of the change. Rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to restore a system or service to its previous state in case of a failed or problematic change implementation. Rollback plan is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to recover from them. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.2
C
Explanation:
Risk analysis is used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation. Risk analysis is a process of identifying, assessing and prioritizing potential risks that may affect a project or an activity. Risk analysis can help determine the likelihood and impact of various issues that may arise during a change implementation, such as technical errors, compatibility problems, security breaches, performance degradation or user dissatisfaction. Risk analysis can also help plan and prepare for mitigating or avoiding these issues. Scope change is a modification of the original goals, requirements or deliverables of a project or an activity. Scope change is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to reflect changes in expectations or needs of the stakeholders. End-user acceptance is a measure of how well the users are satisfied with and adopt a new system or service. End-user acceptance is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to evaluate the success and effectiveness of the change. Rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to restore a system or service to its previous state in case of a failed or problematic change implementation. Rollback plan is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to recover from them. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.2
Question #16
Users access files in the department share. When a user creates a new subfolder, only that user can access the folder and Its files.
Which of the following will MOST likely allow all users to access the new folders?
- A . Assigning share permissions
- B . Enabling inheritance
- C . Requiring multifactor authentication
- D . Removing archive attribute
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Enabling inheritance is a method that allows new subfolders to inherit the permissions and settings from their parent folder. If users can access files in the department share, but not in the new subfolders created by other users, it may indicate that inheritance is disabled and that each new subfolder has its own permissions and settings that restrict access to only the creator. Enabling inheritance can help resolve this issue by allowing all users to access the new subfolders with the same permissions and settings as the department share. Assigning share permissions, requiring multifactor authentication, and removing archive attribute are not methods that can most likely allow all users to access the new folders.
B
Explanation:
Enabling inheritance is a method that allows new subfolders to inherit the permissions and settings from their parent folder. If users can access files in the department share, but not in the new subfolders created by other users, it may indicate that inheritance is disabled and that each new subfolder has its own permissions and settings that restrict access to only the creator. Enabling inheritance can help resolve this issue by allowing all users to access the new subfolders with the same permissions and settings as the department share. Assigning share permissions, requiring multifactor authentication, and removing archive attribute are not methods that can most likely allow all users to access the new folders.
Question #17
A technician is setting up a backup method on a workstation that only requires two sets of tapes to restore.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this task?
- A . Differential backup
- B . Off-site backup
- C . Incremental backup
- D . Full backup
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A
Explanation:
Question #18
A technician thinks that a computer on the network has been infected with malware. The technician attempts several times to use a malware removal tool, but the issue persists.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Restore the computer from the last known-good backup
- B . Reboot the computer into safe mode
- C . Purchase a new endpoint protection tool
- D . Use system recovery to prevent further infection
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Detailed
Rebooting the computer into safe mode (Option B) limits the processes and services that run, which can help in isolating and removing persistent malware that might be hiding in normal mode. Safe mode provides a cleaner environment to troubleshoot and remove malware.
Restoring from a backup (Option A) may work but should be considered after attempts to clean the infection.
Purchasing a new endpoint protection tool (Option C) is unnecessary at this stage since existing tools can be run in safe mode.
Using system recovery (Option D) could potentially remove the infection, but it’s a more drastic step
that may not be necessary yet.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 3.3 – Best practices for malware removal, including booting into safe mode
B
Explanation:
Detailed
Rebooting the computer into safe mode (Option B) limits the processes and services that run, which can help in isolating and removing persistent malware that might be hiding in normal mode. Safe mode provides a cleaner environment to troubleshoot and remove malware.
Restoring from a backup (Option A) may work but should be considered after attempts to clean the infection.
Purchasing a new endpoint protection tool (Option C) is unnecessary at this stage since existing tools can be run in safe mode.
Using system recovery (Option D) could potentially remove the infection, but it’s a more drastic step
that may not be necessary yet.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 3.3 – Best practices for malware removal, including booting into safe mode
Question #19
A police officer often leaves a workstation for several minutes at a time.
Which of the following is the BEST way the officer can secure the workstation quickly when walking away?
- A . Use a key combination to lock the computer when leaving.
- B . Ensure no unauthorized personnel are in the area.
- C . Configure a screensaver to lock the computer automatically after approximately 30 minutes of inactivity.
- D . Turn off the monitor to prevent unauthorized visibility of information.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The BEST way to secure the workstation quickly when walking away is to use a key combination to lock the computer when leaving1
A
Explanation:
The BEST way to secure the workstation quickly when walking away is to use a key combination to lock the computer when leaving1
Question #20
A user rotates a cell phone horizontally to read emails, but the display remains vertical, even though the settings indicate autorotate is on.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A . Recalibrating the magnetometer
- B . Recalibrating the compass
- C . Recalibrating the digitizer
- D . Recalibrating the accelerometer
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When a user rotates a cell phone horizontally to read emails and the display remains vertical, even though the settings indicate autorotate is on, this is typically due to a problem with the phone’s accelerometer. The accelerometer is the sensor that detects changes in the phone’s orientation and adjusts the display accordingly. If the accelerometer is not calibrated correctly, the display may not rotate as expected.
Recalibrating the accelerometer is the most likely solution to this issue. The process for recalibrating the accelerometer can vary depending on the specific device and operating system, but it typically involves going to the device’s settings and finding the option to calibrate or reset the sensor. Users may need to search their device’s documentation or online resources to find specific instructions for their device.
D
Explanation:
When a user rotates a cell phone horizontally to read emails and the display remains vertical, even though the settings indicate autorotate is on, this is typically due to a problem with the phone’s accelerometer. The accelerometer is the sensor that detects changes in the phone’s orientation and adjusts the display accordingly. If the accelerometer is not calibrated correctly, the display may not rotate as expected.
Recalibrating the accelerometer is the most likely solution to this issue. The process for recalibrating the accelerometer can vary depending on the specific device and operating system, but it typically involves going to the device’s settings and finding the option to calibrate or reset the sensor. Users may need to search their device’s documentation or online resources to find specific instructions for their device.