Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
A technician has verified a computer is infected with malware. The technician isolates the system and updates the anti-malware software.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Run one scan and schedule future scans.
- B . Back up the uninfected files and reimage the computer.
- C . Restore the clean backup copies of the infected files.
- D . Run repeated remediation scans until the malware is removed.
D
Explanation:
Malware is malicious software that can cause damage or harm to a computer system or network4. A technician has verified a computer is infected with malware by observing unusual behavior, such as slow performance, pop-ups, or unwanted ads. The technician isolates the system and updates the anti-malware software to prevent further infection or spread of the malware. The next step is to run repeated remediation scans until the malware is removed. A remediation scan is a scan that detects and removes malware from the system. Running one scan may not be enough to remove all traces of malware, as some malware may hide or regenerate itself.
Which of the following is command options is used to display hidden files and directories?
- A . -a
- B . -s
- C . -lh
- D . -t
A
Explanation:
The -a option is used to display hidden files and directories in a command-line interface. Hidden files and directories are those that start with a dot (.) and are normally not shown by default. The -a option stands for “all” and shows all files and directories, including the hidden ones. The -a option can be used with commands such as ls, dir, or find to list or search for hidden files and directories. The -s, -lh, and -t options are not used to display hidden files and directories. The -s option stands for “size” and shows the size of files or directories in bytes. The -lh option stands for “long human-readable” and shows the size of files or directories in a more readable format, such as KB, MB, or GB. The -t option stands for “time” and sorts the files or directories by modification time.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 17
CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 107
An administrator has received approval for a change request for an upcoming server deployment.
Which of the following steps should be completed NEXT?
- A . Perform a risk analysis.
- B . Implement the deployment.
- C . Verify end user acceptance
- D . Document the lessons learned.
B
Explanation:
The standard sequence in managing changes is as follows:
Request a change
Approval of the change
Implementation of the change
Verification/Testing of the change
Document the lessons learned
So, in this situation:
A technician wants to update the local security policies on a Windows machine but is unable to launch the expected snap-in.
Which of the following is the most likely reason?
- A . The computer is running Windows Home.
- B . The user did not sign the end user license agreement.
- C . The user disabled the User Account Control.
- D . An antivirus application is blocking access.
A
Explanation:
The inability to launch the expected security policy snap-in is likely because the computer is running Windows Home edition, which does not include the Group Policy Editor or certain other administrative tools available in Professional, Enterprise, and Education editions. The Home edition is designed for general consumer use and lacks some of the advanced security and management features found in higher editions.
A user reports that a device with a statically defined IP is unable to connect to the internet.
The technician runs the ipconfig /all command and sees the following output:
IPv4 Address………… 192.168.0.74
Subnet Mask…………. 255.255.255.255
Default Gateway……… 192.168.0.1
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the issue?
- A . The default gateway is up.
- B . The user has an APIPA IP address.
- C . The IP address is on the wrong subnet
- D . The subnet mask is incorrect.
D
Explanation:
The ipconfig /all output shows the following:
IPv4 Address………… 192.168.0.74
Subnet Mask…………. 255.255.255.255
Default Gateway……… 192.168.0.1
The issue with the subnet mask being set to 255.255.255.255 is that it specifies a single host subnet, meaning the device cannot communicate with other devices on the network or access the internet.
The correct subnet mask for a typical home network should be:
Subnet mask of 255.255.255.0: This allows for communication within the same local network (192.168.0.0/24).
Default gateway 192.168.0.1: Correct, this is the typical address for the router. IPv4 Address 192.168.0.74: Correct, within the correct subnet range. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 will resolve the connectivity issue.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.5: Given a scenario, install and configure basic wired/wireless small office/home office (SOHO) networks. IP addressing and subnetting documentation.
A user is attempting to access a shared drive from a company-issued laptop while working from home. The user is unable to access any files and notices a red X next to each shared drive.
Which of the following needs to be configured in order to restore the user’s access to the shared drives?
- A . IPv6
- B . VPN
- C . IPS
- D . DNS
B
Explanation:
When a user is unable to access shared drives from a company-issued laptop while working from home, the likely requirement is:
VPN (Virtual Private Network): A VPN allows secure access to the company’s network from a remote location. Without a VPN connection, the user cannot access network resources such as shared drives. IPv6: Involves IP addressing and is not directly related to accessing shared drives.
IPS (Intrusion Prevention System): Provides network security but does not facilitate access to shared drives.
DNS: Manages domain name resolution and is not typically the issue when specific shared drives are
inaccessible.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.7: Explain common methods for securing mobile and embedded devices.
VPN configuration and remote access documentation.
When a user attempts to open an email using a company-issued smartphone, the user receives a message stating the email is encrypted and cannot be opened. The user forwards the email to a personal account and receives the same message. The user then contacts the IT department for assistance. The technician instructs the user to contact the sender to exchange information in order to decode the message.
Which of the following will the user receive from the sender?
- A . Keys
- B . Token
- C . Password
- D . RootCA
A
Explanation:
When an email is encrypted and the recipient cannot open it, the issue typically revolves around the need for encryption keys. Encryption keys are used to encode and decode the email content, ensuring that only authorized recipients with the correct key can access the information. In this scenario, the user would need to receive the appropriate decryption key from the sender to unlock and read the encrypted email. This exchange ensures that sensitive information remains secure during transmission and is only accessible to intended recipients.
A user calls the help desk to report potential malware on a computer. The anomalous activity began after the user clicked a link to a free gift card in a recent email The technician asks the user to describe any unusual activity, such as slow performance, excessive pop-ups, and browser redirections.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A . Advise the user to run a complete system scan using the OS anti-malware application
- B . Guide the user to reboot the machine into safe mode and verify whether the anomalous activities are still present
- C . Have the user check for recently installed applications and outline those installed since the link in the email was clicked
- D . Instruct the user to disconnect the Ethernet connection to the corporate network.
D
Explanation:
First thing you want to do is quarantine/disconnect the affected system from the network so whatever malicious software doesn’t spread.
Which of the following is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3?
- A . Connection security
- B . Encryption key length
- C . Device compatibility
- D . Offline decryption resistance
C
Explanation:
Device compatibility is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3. WPA2 is the previous version of the Wi-Fi Protected Access protocol, which provides security and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 is the latest version, which offers improved security features, such as stronger encryption, enhanced protection against brute-force attacks, and easier configuration. However, WPA3 is not backward compatible with older devices that only support WPA2 or earlier protocols. Therefore, using WPA3 may limit the range of devices that can connect to the wireless network. Connection security, encryption key length, and offline decryption resistance are advantages of using WPA3 instead of WPA2.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 24 CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide (Exams 220-1101 & …, page 1000
A technician is hardening a company file server and needs to prevent unauthorized LAN devices from accessing stored files.
Which of the following should the technician use?
- A . Software firewall
- B . Password complexity
- C . Antivirus application
- D . Anti-malware scans
A
Explanation:
A software firewall is a program that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a computer or a server. A software firewall can help prevent unauthorized LAN devices from accessing stored files on a company file server by applying rules and policies that filter the network packets based on their source, destination, protocol, port, or content. A software firewall can also block or allow specific applications or services from communicating with the network, and alert the administrator of any suspicious or malicious activity12.
A software firewall is a better option than the other choices because:
Password complexity (B) is a good practice to protect the file server from unauthorized access, but it is not sufficient by itself. Password complexity refers to the use of strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack by attackers, and that are changed frequently and securely. Password complexity can prevent brute force attacks or credential theft, but it cannot stop network attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in the file server software or hardware, or that bypass the authentication process34. Antivirus application © and anti-malware scans (D) are important tools to protect the file server from viruses and malware that can infect, damage, or encrypt the stored files. However, they are not effective in preventing unauthorized LAN devices from accessing the files in the first place. Antivirus and anti-malware tools can only detect and remove known threats, and they may not be able to stop zero-day attacks or advanced persistent threats that can evade or disable them. Moreover, antivirus and anti-malware tools cannot control the network traffic or the file server permissions, and they may not be compatible with all file server platforms or configurations56.
Reference: 1: What is a Firewall and How Does it Work? – Cisco1 2: How to Harden Your Windows Server – ServerMania2 3: Password Security: Complexity vs. Length – Norton7 4: Password Hardening: 5 Ways to Protect Your Passwords – Infosec 5: What is Antivirus Software and How Does it Work? – Kaspersky 6: What is Anti-Malware? – Malwarebytes
