Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
Question #161
A technician is helping a customer connect to a shared drive. The technician notices some unused drives that have already been mapped and wants to disconnect those drives first.
Which of the following commands should the technician use?
- A . format
- B . netstat
- C . diskpart
- D . net use
- E . rmdir
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Detailed
The net use (Option D) command is used to manage network drives in Windows. It can be used to display and disconnect mapped network drives, making it the correct choice for removing unused network drives.
format (Option A) is used to format disks, not for managing network drives.
netstat (Option B) displays network connections but doesn’t manage network drives.
diskpart (Option C) is used for disk partitioning, not network drive management.
rmdir (Option E) is used to remove directories, not network drives.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 1.2 – Use the appropriate Microsoft command-line tool, including net use for managing network drives .
D
Explanation:
Detailed
The net use (Option D) command is used to manage network drives in Windows. It can be used to display and disconnect mapped network drives, making it the correct choice for removing unused network drives.
format (Option A) is used to format disks, not for managing network drives.
netstat (Option B) displays network connections but doesn’t manage network drives.
diskpart (Option C) is used for disk partitioning, not network drive management.
rmdir (Option E) is used to remove directories, not network drives.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 1.2 – Use the appropriate Microsoft command-line tool, including net use for managing network drives .
Question #162
A technician assigns the equivalent of root-level permissions to a user to perform a task.
Which of the following user roles within the Windows OS should the technician choose?
- A . Power
- B . Default
- C . Administrator
- D . Superuser
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
In the Windows OS, to grant a user permissions equivalent to root-level permissions (which means full control over the system), the user needs to be given:
Administrator: The Administrator role provides full control over the system, including the ability to install and uninstall software, change system settings, and access all files and directories.
Power: The Power User role provides some administrative capabilities but not full control. It is a legacy role with fewer permissions than Administrator.
Default: This refers to a standard user account with limited permissions.
Superuser: This term is more commonly associated with Unix/Linux systems and is not a specific role in Windows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.5: Given a scenario manage and configure basic security settings in the Microsoft Windows OS.
Windows user roles and permissions documentation.
C
Explanation:
In the Windows OS, to grant a user permissions equivalent to root-level permissions (which means full control over the system), the user needs to be given:
Administrator: The Administrator role provides full control over the system, including the ability to install and uninstall software, change system settings, and access all files and directories.
Power: The Power User role provides some administrative capabilities but not full control. It is a legacy role with fewer permissions than Administrator.
Default: This refers to a standard user account with limited permissions.
Superuser: This term is more commonly associated with Unix/Linux systems and is not a specific role in Windows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.5: Given a scenario manage and configure basic security settings in the Microsoft Windows OS.
Windows user roles and permissions documentation.
Question #163
A small company has an office in a multitenant building. The company has implemented a wireless network for its employees to use. However, the network speeds are slow, and many employees have had intermittent access to the Internet. The network consists of a single wireless router with default settings in place.
Which of the following should a technician do to improve the network speed and Internet access?
- A . Enable WPA3 security.
- B . Change the wireless channel.
- C . Implement MAC filtering.
- D . Create a guest network.
Correct Answer: B
Question #164
After a computer upgrade at an imaging lab. the upgraded computers are not able to obtain an IP address.
Which of the following is most likely the issue?
- A . The switch Is only providing IPv6 addresses.
- B . The OS must be updated to be compatible with the imaging software.
- C . The switch has port security enabled.
- D . The switch does not support multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When upgraded computers are not able to obtain an IP address, the issue often lies in the network configuration.
Here’s a detailed explanation:
Option A: The switch is only providing IPv6 addresses.
This is unlikely because if the switch were providing IPv6 addresses, the devices would still receive an IP address, albeit an IPv6 one. The issue described indicates no IP address is being obtained at all.
Option B: The OS must be updated to be compatible with the imaging software.
This option is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Compatibility with imaging software would not prevent the devices from getting an IP address.
Option C: The switch has port security enabled.
Correct Answer. Port security on a switch restricts access based on MAC addresses. If the MAC addresses of the upgraded computers are not recognized or have not been added to the allowed list, the switch will not provide network access, resulting in the computers not obtaining an IP address.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 2.6
Option D: The switch does not support multicast traffic.
This is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Multicast traffic deals with specific types of network communication and would not affect the basic DHCP IP address assignment process.
C
Explanation:
When upgraded computers are not able to obtain an IP address, the issue often lies in the network configuration.
Here’s a detailed explanation:
Option A: The switch is only providing IPv6 addresses.
This is unlikely because if the switch were providing IPv6 addresses, the devices would still receive an IP address, albeit an IPv6 one. The issue described indicates no IP address is being obtained at all.
Option B: The OS must be updated to be compatible with the imaging software.
This option is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Compatibility with imaging software would not prevent the devices from getting an IP address.
Option C: The switch has port security enabled.
Correct Answer. Port security on a switch restricts access based on MAC addresses. If the MAC addresses of the upgraded computers are not recognized or have not been added to the allowed list, the switch will not provide network access, resulting in the computers not obtaining an IP address.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 2.6
Option D: The switch does not support multicast traffic.
This is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Multicast traffic deals with specific types of network communication and would not affect the basic DHCP IP address assignment process.
Question #165
A laptop user is visually impaired and requires a different cursor color.
Which of the following OS utilities is used to change the color of the cursor?
- A . Keyboard
- B . Touch pad
- C . Ease of Access Center
- D . Display settings
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The OS utility used to change the color of the cursor in Windows is Ease of Access Center 12
The user can change the cursor color by opening the Settings app, selecting Accessibility in the left sidebar, selecting Mouse pointer and touch under Vision, and choosing one of the cursor options. The user can select Custom to pick a color and use the Size slider to make the cursor larger or smaller12
The Ease of Access Center in the Windows OS provides accessibility options for users with disabilities or impairments. One of these options allows the user to change the color and size of the cursor, making it more visible and easier to locate on the screen. The Keyboard and Touchpad settings do not offer the option to change cursor color, and Display Settings are used to adjust the resolution and other properties of the display. Therefore, C is the best answer. This information is covered in the Comptia A+ Core2 documents/guide under the Accessibility section.
C
Explanation:
The OS utility used to change the color of the cursor in Windows is Ease of Access Center 12
The user can change the cursor color by opening the Settings app, selecting Accessibility in the left sidebar, selecting Mouse pointer and touch under Vision, and choosing one of the cursor options. The user can select Custom to pick a color and use the Size slider to make the cursor larger or smaller12
The Ease of Access Center in the Windows OS provides accessibility options for users with disabilities or impairments. One of these options allows the user to change the color and size of the cursor, making it more visible and easier to locate on the screen. The Keyboard and Touchpad settings do not offer the option to change cursor color, and Display Settings are used to adjust the resolution and other properties of the display. Therefore, C is the best answer. This information is covered in the Comptia A+ Core2 documents/guide under the Accessibility section.
Question #166
A remote user is experiencing issues with Outlook settings and asks a technician to review the settings.
Which of the following can the technician use to access the user’s computer remotely?
- A . VPN
- B . RDP
- C . RMM
- D . SSH
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
One of the possible ways to access the user’s computer remotely is to use RDP, which stands for Remote Desktop Protocol. RDP is a protocol that allows a user to connect to another computer over a network and use its graphical interface. RDP is commonly used for remote desktop software, such as Microsoft Remote Desktop Connection 1. To use RDP, the user’s computer must run RDP server software, and the technician must run RDP client software. The technician can then enter the user’s IP address or hostname, and provide the appropriate credentials to log in to the user’s computer. Once connected, the technician can view and control the user’s desktop, and review the Outlook settings.
B
Explanation:
One of the possible ways to access the user’s computer remotely is to use RDP, which stands for Remote Desktop Protocol. RDP is a protocol that allows a user to connect to another computer over a network and use its graphical interface. RDP is commonly used for remote desktop software, such as Microsoft Remote Desktop Connection 1. To use RDP, the user’s computer must run RDP server software, and the technician must run RDP client software. The technician can then enter the user’s IP address or hostname, and provide the appropriate credentials to log in to the user’s computer. Once connected, the technician can view and control the user’s desktop, and review the Outlook settings.
Question #167
Which of the following is the best reason for sandbox testing in change management?
- A . To evaluate the change before deployment
- B . To obtain end-user acceptance
- C . To determine the affected systems
- D . To select a change owner
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Sandbox testing is a method of testing changes in a simulated environment that mimics the real one, without affecting the actual production system. Sandbox testing is useful for change management because it allows the testers to evaluate the change before deployment, and ensure that it works as intended, does not cause any errors or conflicts, and meets the requirements and expectations of the stakeholders. Sandbox testing also helps to protect the investment in the existing system, as it reduces the risk of introducing bugs or breaking functionality that could harm the customer experience or the business operations. Sandbox testing also gives the testers more control over the customer experience, as they can experiment with different scenarios and configurations, and optimize the change for the best possible outcome.
Reference: 1: Change Management and Sandbox – Quickbase1 2: Embracing change: Build, test, and adapt in a sandbox environment – Zendesk3
A
Explanation:
Sandbox testing is a method of testing changes in a simulated environment that mimics the real one, without affecting the actual production system. Sandbox testing is useful for change management because it allows the testers to evaluate the change before deployment, and ensure that it works as intended, does not cause any errors or conflicts, and meets the requirements and expectations of the stakeholders. Sandbox testing also helps to protect the investment in the existing system, as it reduces the risk of introducing bugs or breaking functionality that could harm the customer experience or the business operations. Sandbox testing also gives the testers more control over the customer experience, as they can experiment with different scenarios and configurations, and optimize the change for the best possible outcome.
Reference: 1: Change Management and Sandbox – Quickbase1 2: Embracing change: Build, test, and adapt in a sandbox environment – Zendesk3
Question #168
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of scripting languages?
- A . To access the hardware of the computer it is running on
- B . To automate tasks and reduce the amount of manual labor
- C . To abstract the complexity of the computer system
- D . To compile the program into an executable file
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Scripting languages are used to write small to medium-sized programs that perform specific tasks. Some common uses of scripting languages are: automating repetitive processes, web development, system administration, data processing, multimedia and games, report generation, document and text processing, writing plugins and extensions for existing programs and applications 1.
Reference: 1 What is Scripting Language?: Introduction, Types, Uses & Career …(https://leverageedu.com/blog/scripting-language/)
B
Explanation:
Scripting languages are used to write small to medium-sized programs that perform specific tasks. Some common uses of scripting languages are: automating repetitive processes, web development, system administration, data processing, multimedia and games, report generation, document and text processing, writing plugins and extensions for existing programs and applications 1.
Reference: 1 What is Scripting Language?: Introduction, Types, Uses & Career …(https://leverageedu.com/blog/scripting-language/)
Question #169
During a routine check, a systems administrator discovers that a user’s PC is running slowly and CPU utilization is at 100%. Further investigation shows a large amount of resource usage.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the high resource usage?
- A . Firewall activities
- B . Botnet attack
- C . DDoS attack
- D . Keylogger attack
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When a system administrator discovers a user’s PC running slowly with 100% CPU utilization, it often indicates that the system is being used for unauthorized purposes, such as being part of a botnet attack. Here’s why:
Botnet attack: Botnets are networks of computers infected with malware and controlled by an attacker. These infected computers (bots) are often used to carry out tasks like sending spam or participating in Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. The high CPU utilization and resource usage indicate that the computer might be performing tasks dictated by the botnet controller.
Firewall activities: While firewall activities can use some resources, they generally do not cause sustained high CPU utilization.
DDoS attack: DDoS attacks target external systems by overwhelming them with traffic. A system participating in a DDoS might have high network usage, but the primary symptom on the user’s PC would be high network activity, not necessarily CPU usage.
Keylogger attack: Keyloggers record keystrokes and generally do not cause high CPU utilization. They are more stealthy and have minimal resource footprints.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.4: Explain common social-engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities.
Security and malware documentation.
B
Explanation:
When a system administrator discovers a user’s PC running slowly with 100% CPU utilization, it often indicates that the system is being used for unauthorized purposes, such as being part of a botnet attack. Here’s why:
Botnet attack: Botnets are networks of computers infected with malware and controlled by an attacker. These infected computers (bots) are often used to carry out tasks like sending spam or participating in Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. The high CPU utilization and resource usage indicate that the computer might be performing tasks dictated by the botnet controller.
Firewall activities: While firewall activities can use some resources, they generally do not cause sustained high CPU utilization.
DDoS attack: DDoS attacks target external systems by overwhelming them with traffic. A system participating in a DDoS might have high network usage, but the primary symptom on the user’s PC would be high network activity, not necessarily CPU usage.
Keylogger attack: Keyloggers record keystrokes and generally do not cause high CPU utilization. They are more stealthy and have minimal resource footprints.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.4: Explain common social-engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities.
Security and malware documentation.
Question #170
A technician is following the ticketing system’s best practices when handling user support requests.
Which of the following should the technician do first when responding to a user support request that contains insufficient information?
- A . Ask the user for clarification.
- B . Keep the user updated on the progress.
- C . Document the root cause.
- D . Follow the system’s escalation process.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When handling a user support request that contains insufficient information, the first step a technician should take is to Ask the user for clarification (A). This involves gathering more details about the issue to understand the problem better and provide an accurate resolution. Effective communication and asking the right questions are essential for diagnosing and resolving IT issues efficiently.
A
Explanation:
When handling a user support request that contains insufficient information, the first step a technician should take is to Ask the user for clarification (A). This involves gathering more details about the issue to understand the problem better and provide an accurate resolution. Effective communication and asking the right questions are essential for diagnosing and resolving IT issues efficiently.